PEBC Cardiology Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which statement best describes a feature of stable angina?
• Which test is commonly used in diagnosing DVT in addition to ultrasound?
• LDL-C target is typically assessed after what timeframe after starting a statin?
• What is the CHADS score used to estimate?
• Aspirin in primary prevention is associated with increased risk of which cancer type?
• What does valvular atrial fibrillation mean?
• What atrial rate is considered atrial fibrillation?
• Which of the following best represents Virchow's triad components?
• Which is a safety endpoint for statins?
• What is considered the strongest single risk factor for venous thromboembolism?
• What is the LDL-C target for ASCVD?
• Which therapy is unique to cardioembolic stroke prevention compared to atherosclerotic stroke prevention?
• Which symptom refers to shortness of breath when lying flat?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for atrial fibrillation?
• Which statement about antithrombotic therapy in symptomatic PAD is correct for patients without a history of ACS?
• What are the two main classifications of stroke?
• Which drug is commonly used to reduce cardiovascular risk in PAD?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a medication that can exacerbate hypertension?
• Which clotting factors are most relevant in venous thromboembolism?
• Which antihypertensive is NOT listed as recommended during pregnancy?
• Which symptom is part of the clinical presentation of atrial fibrillation?
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class I is characterized by?
• Which systems are activated during acute heart failure compensation?
• Which statement best describes a limitation of the Framingham risk score?
• Which drug classes are known to increase LDL-C levels?
• How is asymptomatic PAD managed?
• What is the normal QRS duration on an ECG?
• Which factor is included in CHA2DS2VASc but not in CHADS2?
• Which therapy is used to prevent stent thrombosis after MI?
• What best defines vasovagal syncope?
• In NSTEMI management, the preferred anticoagulant is?
• Which symptom cluster is a red flag for venous thromboembolism?
• Which of the following is included as a component of HAS-BLED scoring?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for atrial fibrillation?
• Which finding is a sign of fluid overload in heart failure?
• After an acute coronary syndrome, what is the general recommended duration for beta-blocker therapy?
• Rupture of artery plaques most commonly leads to which cardiovascular event?
• For a patient with an LVEF <30% after ACS, beta-blocker therapy should be continued for how long?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with heart failure?
• Which component is related to sex in the CHA2DS2VASc scoring system?
• When newly diagnosed with AF, what therapies should be assessed?
• Cardiovascular events endpoint in statin trials is typically assessed after about what period?
• What is the preferred analgesia in an acute myocardial infarction?
• What is proarrhythmia?
• What is the normal QTc interval on an ECG?
• Which factor is a major reason for selecting third-line therapy in stable angina management?
• NYHA Class III is described as?
• Which single blood pressure reading constitutes an automatic diagnosis of hypertension?
• Which pair of physiological changes are cited as causes of hypertension?
• What is the maximum recommended time from first medical contact to thrombolytic therapy in acute coronary syndrome?
• Which drug classes are known to increase triglyceride levels?
• Besides ACE inhibitors, which agent can be used to prevent ventricular remodeling after MI?
• Which statement best describes the CHADS2 scoring system?
• Which test is used to diagnose PAD?
• Which antithrombotic regimen is used after PAD revascularization?
• Which tests are commonly used to diagnose deep vein thrombosis?
• Which drug class is associated with age-based restrictions in first-line therapy (for younger patients)?
• Which description matches first-degree AV block?
• Orthostatic hypotension is defined as?
• In stable angina, which statement correctly describes the line of therapy?
• In heart failure management, an additional diuretic is typically given when a patient has gained more than how many kilograms over their dry weight for more than 24 hours?
• Which of the following is commonly listed as a symptom of heart failure?
• Which statement about PAD symptoms is true?
• Which statement accurately describes CK and troponin elevations in myocardial infarction?
• LDL-C target for familial hypercholesterolemia?
• What is the normal PR interval on an ECG?
• Which statement correctly describes how LDL-C is estimated in a standard lipid panel?
• Which lipid parameter is typically calculated rather than directly measured?
• LDL-C target for primary prevention?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the HAS-BLED bleeding risk score?
• Which drug class is listed as required in HFrEF?
• Which statement correctly describes HF-pEF versus HF-rEF?
• What should initial hypertension treatment be for patients with diabetes?
• Which agent is used to prevent ventricular rupture post MI?
• Why is Non-HDL-C calculated in lipid assessment?
• In the CHADS-65 algorithm, which condition automatically indicates initiation of oral anticoagulation?
• After an ACS, what is the recommended duration for ACE inhibitors or ARBs?
• What therapy is commonly used for secondary prevention in non-cardioembolic (atherosclerotic) stroke?
• When is rhythm control preferred in AF patients?
• Which diet is listed as good for dyslipidemia alongside Mediterranean and Portfolio?
• In primary prevention, which statement describes the benefits and risks of aspirin?
• Which diet is recommended for dyslipidemia?
• What should initial hypertension treatment be for patients with chronic kidney disease?
• Which statement best describes the difference between stable and unstable angina?
• Which statement best describes HF-pEF in relation to ejection fraction?
• Which symptom would prompt monitoring for statin-associated myopathy?
• Which statement represents a restriction on first-line hypertension therapy?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with atrial fibrillation?
• Which blood pressure value defines an automatic ER visit criterion when the patient is asymptomatic?
• Which measurement most directly reflects the number of atherogenic lipoprotein particles?
• Which non-pharmacologic measure is recommended for patients with warning signs of vasovagal syncope?
• In the CHADS-65 algorithm, if there are no CHADS risk factors and no CAD or PAD, what is recommended?
• Aspirin post-ACS should be continued indefinitely unless there is a very high risk of bleeding. Which option correctly reflects this guidance?
• Non-HDL-C is particularly useful as a risk marker in which scenario?
• What does the QT interval on an ECG represent?
• Which statement correctly describes the relationship between unstable angina, NSTEMI, and STEMI in terms of occlusion and biomarkers?
• What are the normal and reduced ejection fraction ranges?
• ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is best characterized by which occlusion status?
• Which of the following is NOT a compensatory mechanism activated in acute heart failure?
• At what age should patients without underlying conditions be screened for dyslipidemia?
• What is secondary hypertension and its most common cause?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed risk factor for atrial fibrillation in the source material?
• ApoB has what clinical significance in lipid panels?
• If triglycerides are elevated, which add-on is not preferred?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the HAS-BLED bleeding risk score?
• The QRS complex predominantly represents which event in the cardiac cycle?
• Which statement distinguishes stroke from TIA based on imaging evidence?
• What is the target heart rate for those on rate control with atrial fibrillation?
• Which description matches second-degree AV block?
• Which beta-blocker is listed as a beta-1 selective agent among the preferred options for regular hypertension?
• Which of the following is a component of the CHADS2 score?
• Which of the following is NOT a recognized class of causes of syncope?
• For STEMI treated with fibrinolysis, which anticoagulant is typically used?
• What does the FAST acronym stand for in acute stroke recognition?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for atrial fibrillation?
• For P2Y12 inhibitors after ACS, what is the general duration?
• Which clinical finding indicates venous congestion in heart failure?
• Which agents are used to prevent arrhythmias after myocardial infarction?
• Which statement is NOT a feature of stable angina?
• Which heart failure phenotype is more sensitive to diuretics?
• Which agent is used to prevent recurrent myocardial infarctions?
• Immediate management for ventricular fibrillation should include?
• Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation is defined as AF episodes lasting less than how many days?
• If ACE inhibitors are not tolerated in chronic kidney disease, which alternative is used?
• Which group is considered for aspirin therapy in primary prevention?
• What is the dose of rivaroxaban used in PAD?
• NYHA Class II is best described as?
• Which statement best describes the use of fludrocortisone and midodrine in vasovagal syncope?
• Which of the following is an antiplatelet agent used in ACS treatment?
• Which of the following is a sign of heart failure that a clinician might observe on examination?
• Which agent is used to prevent ventricular remodeling post MI?
• Which antihypertensive is NOT listed as recommended for hypertension in breastfeeding mothers?
• Which of the following is an example of a post-ACS drug class that reduces mortality risk?
• Which is an efficacy endpoint for statins?
• How are LDL-C and ApoB related in lipid particles?
• Which presentation most suggests a pulmonary embolism?
• Cholesterol is produced mainly in which organ, and what factor influences its transport?
• Which beta-blocker is NOT among the beta-1 selective agents listed as preferred for regular hypertension?
• Which test is used specifically as a biomarker for acute heart failure?
• What is the potentially fatal consequence of atrial fibrillation?
• What is paroxysmal atrial fibrillation?
• Which sequence describes the treatment pathway for an acute ischemic stroke?
• Which intervention is included in the ACS management plan according to the provided material?
• Which medication is commonly used to relieve chest pain and reduce myocardial oxygen demand in ACS?
• For secondary prevention after cardioembolic stroke, which combination is appropriate?
• What is the LDL-C target for Diabetes and CKD?
• Which antihypertensive class is contraindicated in pregnancy?
• For STEMI patients undergoing PCI, which anticoagulant is generally preferred?
• In patients with high risk of recurrent events after ACS, the duration of P2Y12 inhibitor therapy should be:
• Which BP component has a larger impact on overall mortality in hypertension?
• What is the #1 action patients can take to improve PAD?
• Which is part of the standard ACS treatment regimen?
• Which of the following is one of the five first-line drug classes for treating hypertension?
• If PAD symptoms are unilateral, what testing step is recommended?
• Which factor adds 2 points in the CHA2DS2VASc score?
• LDL target for ASCVD equals which value?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for atrial fibrillation?
• Which statement best describes the normal PR interval and the event it represents?
• Which form of calcium channel blocker is considered first-line in hypertension management?
• For hypertensive patients with a history of stroke or TIA, which initial therapy is recommended?
• Lipoprotein(a) is best described as which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT among the four statin-indicated conditions?
• Which statement best distinguishes major cardiovascular risk factors from minor risk factors?
• Which description matches third-degree AV block?
• What should initial hypertension treatment be for patients with stable angina?
• What is the recommended initial therapy for a patient with a recent myocardial infarction?
• What should initial hypertension treatment be for patients with coronary artery disease?
• For beta-blocker therapy after MI with a single affected artery, duration is generally:
• Which category describes rupture of a blood vessel leading to bleeding in the brain?
• What is considered a normal resting heart rate?
• Which statement best describes Virchow's triad components?
• Which components are measured in a standard cholesterol panel?
• What is the ideal door-to-needle time for thrombolysis in acute coronary syndrome?
• Which factor is a major risk factor for venous thromboembolism?
• Fibrinolytics such as tenecteplase or alteplase are appropriate in which scenario?
• NYHA Class IV is defined by?
• In stable angina management, which nitrate form is used as needed for relief?
• Typical add-on to statins in dyslipidemia?
• A large difference in systolic blood pressure between the legs on evaluation suggests PAD.
• Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by what?